NAME
__________________________________ DATE:
Choose the best
answer. Place your answers on the space provided for:
1. ___True of
xenobiotic metabolism:
A. involves
only rates of distribution of drugs in humans
B. mechanisms
by which humans biotransform and eliminate foreign substances
C. utilize
hydroxylation reactions only
D. the only
product of phase I reactions are hydroxylated inactive forms
2. ___The main
object of xenobiotic metabolism:
A. Conversion
of harmful substances to inactive and excretable forms
B.
Transformation of drugs to inactive intermediates
C. Conversion
of dangerous agents to conjugated forms
D. None of the
above
3. ___Phase I
and II reactions of xenobiotic metabolism ultimately affects these aspects of
the foreign substance:
A. Size C.
ionization
B.
Solubility D. all of the
choices
4. ___The
process of detoxification of dangerous agents are carried out in what stage of
xenobiotic metabolism:
A. Phase I C. Phase II
B. Phase
III D. all of the
choices
5. ___True of
Phase I reactions, EXCEPT:
A. biological
alteration to less active or inactive form
B. uses
primarily cytochromes
C. utilizes
conjugation reactions
D. addition of
functional groups
6. ___True of
hydroxylation reaction of Phase I
A. catalyzed by
a dioxygenase class of enzymes, Cytochrome
P450s
B. two atoms of
oxygen utilized for R-OH formation
C. one atom of
oxygen utilized for R-OH formation and one atom utilized for
generation of water
D. enzymes
utilized belongs to Major class I
7. ___The
following are the products of conjugases, EXCEPT:
A. glucuronic
acid conjugates C.
glutathione conjugates
B. glycine
conjugates D.
lysyl conjugates
8. ___Acetaminophen
biotransformation can be determined by increased levels of this intermediate in
the urine:
A.
O-hydroxyhippurate
C. Urinary benzoate
B. Urinary
glucarate D. glucuronide
conjugate
9. ___Factors
that influence xenobiotic transformation:
A. Disease
states C.
environment
B. Age D. all of the
choices
10. ___Molecules
that support xenobiotic metabolism:
A. co-factors
and nutients like niacin, pyridoxine, glycine
B. Antioxidants
and protective nutrients like magnesium, calcium
C.
Phytonutrients that stimulate activity of enzymes
D. co-enzymes
like pyridoxine, cobalamin and folate
Match the
specific isozyme of P450 with their specific substrate:
11.
___CYP2A6 A.
cafeine
12.
___CYP2E1 B. cyclosporine
13.
___CYP1A2 C. coumarin
14.
___CYP2C8,9,18 D. ethanol
15.
___CYP3A4,5 E. mephenhytoin
Matching Type:
Match the toxins with its specific method of detoxification:
16.
___ organotoxins(polar) A. sequestration in bone
17.
___ammonia B. conjugation process
18.
___heavy metals C. antioxidant
cycling
19.
___non-polar organotoxins D. redox reactions introducing
functional
groups
20.
___oxygen radicals E. mobilization with
help of Glu/Gln
Choose the best
answer. Place your answers on the space provided for:
21. ___True of
the transformed cell, EXCEPT:
A. Early functions of these viruses are
expressed
B. Virus
proteins expressed but no mature virus particles
C. Virus
proteins expressed with mature virus particles
D. Early
functions of these viruses are expressed altering infected cell properties
22. ___Transformation
involves:
A.
non-interference of cell replication control mechanism
B. ability to
form tumors
C. synthesis of
structural proteins by DNA viruses
D. DNA viruses
do not control cellular and viral genome replication
23.
___Characteristics of a transformed cell, EXCEPT:
A. Loss of
contact inhibition
B. More mobile
cells
C. Maintains
adhesions with other cells
D. Frequently
exhibits chromosomal aberrations
24. ___True of
Papilloma viruses:
A. Causes warts
that transforms to malignant squamous cell carcinoma
B. Affects the
larynx and esophagus only
C. Majority of
all human cancers are human papilloma virus-linked
D. Not linked
to penile and vulval cancers
25.
___Epstein-Barr Virus of the Herpes Viruses is associated with:
A. Cervical
malignancy C. Hepatocellular CA
B. Uterine
cancer D.
Burkitt’s lymphoma
26. ___True of
hepatitis B virus:
A. majority of
persons infected by the virus develops hepatoma
B. Utilizes RNA
polymerase II of the host cell
C. Does not
possess reverse transcriptase enzyme
D.
Characterized by short incubation period
27. ___A
characteristic of DNA tumor viruses in human cancer:
A. Have reverse
transcriptase
B.
Incorporation into host cell chromosome is possible
C. Propagation
in the wild depends on production of cancer
D. DNA tumor
viruses are much less than RNA tumor viruses
28. ___A
component gene of a normal retrovirus that codes for viral core proteins:
A. Pol B.
env C. gag D. src
29. ___The
retrovirus life cycle sequence:
1. Nucleus
2. release of
nucleocapsid to cytoplasm
3. fusion of
membranes
4. endocytosis
A. 1, 3, 4,
2 B. 4, 3, 2, 1 C. 2, 4, 1, 3 D. 3, 4, 1 ,2
30. ___Function
of long-terminal repeats(LTR):
A. Encode
integrase enzyme
B. Produces
protein tyrosine kinase
C. Initiates
transcription through its repressor
D. regulates
and initiates transcription through its promoters and enhancers
31. ___The
genes of the retrovirus needed for replication to produce more virus:
A. gag, pol and
src C. env, gag and
src
B. gag,
pol and env D. gag and src
32. ___The gene
of Rous sarcoma virus that cause acute transformation or rapid onset of
neoplasia:
A. env B.
gag C. src D. pol
33. ___The
translocation mechanism seen in Burkitt’s lymphoma:
A. 7:15 translocation C. 8:14
translocation
B. 9:18
translocation D. 11:15:17
translocation
34. ___The
cellular oncogene(c-onc) and promoter involved in T cell chronic lymphocytic
leukemia:
A. myc, T cell receptor C. bcl-1, Ig light
B. bcl-2,
B-cell receptor D.
tcl-1, T cell receptor
35.
___Oncogenes of RNA tumor viruses encode:
A. protein
hormones C.
growth factor receptors
B. steroid hormone
receptors D. replication
factors
36. ___Tumor-suppressor
genes includes p53 and Rb. How would a "gain-of-function" mutation
likely affect the cell?
A. The cell
would divide constantly because of the loss of cell cycle repression.
B. The cell
would divide much less frequently because of the extra cell cycle repression.
C. The cell
would divide normally because these genes have no effect on cell cycle control.
D. The cell
would commit suicide by apoptosis.
37. ___In lab,
you are studying cell cycle control in the fission yeast, S. pombe. A student
finds a new mutant that she wants to call "giant" because the cells
are much larger than normal (suggesting that it is not dividing normally.) What
type of mutation do you think your student has isolated?
A. a
loss-of-function mutation in a tumor-suppressor gene
B. a
loss-of-function mutation in a cellular proto-oncogene
C. a
gain-of-function mutation in a cellular proto-oncogene
D. Both a and c
are possible.
38. ___Which of
the following would be an effective approach to a new cancer therapy?
A. finding a
way to stabilize p53 specifically in tumor cells
B. preventing
nucleotide synthesis in tumor cells
C. inhibiting
growth of new blood vessels with endostatin
D. All of the
above would help to fight cancer.
39. ___How
would the cell cycle be affected if you removed the phosphorylation sites in
the Rb protein?
A. The cell
cycle would not be affected because pRb is not phosphorylated normally.
B. The cell
cycle would be blocked in G1.
C. The cell
cycle would be blocked in G2.
D. The cell
cycle would be shorter.
40. ___Embryonic
stem (ES) cells are an attractive source of material for therapeutic cloning
because
A. they can be
induced to assume any cell fate.
B. ES cells are
not targets for the host immune response, so tissue rejection is not an issue.
C. there are no
other sources of stem cells to use for therapeutic cloning, so ES cells are the
only solution.
D.ES cells will
not work as a source of tissue for cloning.
41. ___How
would growing cells in the presence of methyladenosine affect the mismatch
repair system?
A. The repair
system would only repair half of the errors introduced by DNA polymerase.
B. There would
be no repair of mismatched DNA.
C .Mismatch
repair would be normal, but excision repair would fail.
D. Methyladenosine
would prevent DNA replication, so there would be no need for mismatch repair.
42. ___Too much time in a tanning booth
probably causes DNA damage to epithelial cells. The most likely effect would be
A. depurination
B. pyrimidine
dimmers
C. deamination
D. single-stranded
nicks in the phosphodiester backbone
43. ___Using a
"car and driver" analogy, which of the following accurately describes
the role of tumor-suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes in normal cells?
A. Tumor-suppressor
genes are the gas pedal, while proto-oncogenes are the brakes.
B. Tumor-suppressor
genes are the brakes while proto-oncogenes are the gas.
C. Both
tumor-suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes are like the gas, but
tumor-suppressors are like turbo and proto-oncogenes are like a regular
carburetor.
D. Tumor-suppressor
genes are like the steering wheel, and proto-oncogenes are like the turn
signals.
44. ___During
the early years of cancer research, there were two schools of thought regarding
the causes of cancer: 1) that cancer was caused entirely by environmental
factors, and 2) that cancer was caused by genetic factors. Which is correct?
A. #1 because
we have identified many potential carcinogens
B. #2 because
we know of many proto-oncogenes
C. #2 because
we know of many tumor-suppressor genes
D. Both were
correct; most chemical carcinogens function by altering genes.
45. ___If you
found a specific chromosomal deletion in the genome from a tumor, what could be
the cause of this specific cancer?
A. The deletion
likely affected a tumor-suppressor gene, leading to a loss of function in the
tumor cells.
B. The deletion
likely affected a proto-oncogene, leading to a loss of function in the tumor
cells.
C. The deletion
likely affected a tumor-suppressor gene, leading to a gain of function in the
tumor cells.
D. The deletion
likely affected a proto-oncogene, leading to a gain of function in the tumor
cells
46.___Type of
dermatitis found in patients as part of the cutaneous changes in Vitamin
deficiency?
A.
light-sensitive dermatitis
C. dry, scaly dermatitis
B.
phrynoderma D. flaky-paint skin rash
47. ___Which of
the following does not affect transport, storage and metabolism of Vitamin B1?
A. tea
C. alcohol
B. uncooked
fresh water fish D.
cabbage. broccoli, turnips
48. ___Hypothyroidism
may present with cheilosis because this enzyme is not activated?
A.
thiaminase B. flavokinase C. xanthine oxidase D. glutathione peroxidase
49. ___There is
a need to increase the daily intake of ascorbic acid during stressful
conditions because of:
A. increased
hydroxylation of proline and lysine residues in collagen formation
B. increased
production of GABA
C. increased
synthesis of epinephrine, norepinephrine and steroid hormones
D. increased
requirement for maintenance of integrity of cell membranes
50. ___Which of
the following increase the absorption of calcium in the intestine?
A. oxalic
acid in spinach and cocoa C. fiber in the diet
B. loss of
adaptive response in aging D. acidic
medium
51. ___Which of
the following decrease the absorption of iron in the duodenum; EXCEPT:
A. zinc in
increased amounts C.
phytates in cereal grains
B. tannin in tea D.
Vitamin A
52. ___This
laboratory finding is NOT present in iron deficiency anemia.
A. microcytic,
hypochromic RBCs
B. decreased
MCHC and MCV
C. decreased
serum iron concentration <50ug/dl
D. serum
transferrin saturation >30%
53. ___Which of
the following mineral is needed in osteoblastic activity and indirectly
involved in the growth process?
A. chromium B.
zinc C. molybdenum D. manganese
54. ___A
vitamin B complex that serves as the precursor of the coenzyme needed for
transamination reactions:
A. pyridoxine B. thiamine C. riboflavin D. biotin
55. ___Which
vitamin contains a pyrimidine and a thiazole ring?
A. Riboflavin B. Niacin C. Thiamine D.
Pantothenic acid
TRUE OR
FALSE: Write A if the statement is TRUE and B if the statement is FALSE.
56.
___The earliest symptom of Vitamin A deficiency is nyctalopia.
57.
___The synthetic form of Vitamin K routinely given to newborn infants is
menaquinone.
58.
___Pyridoxine is required in the conversion of tryptophan to niacin.
59.
___It is not advisable to take calcium and iron supplements together because
they will complete with intestinal absorption sites and transport systems for
divalent ions.
60.
___Cauliflower, spinach, cabbage and soy beans are considered as
“anti-nutrients” which adversely influence proper absorption and utilization of
iodine.
61.
___Flaky-paint rash or enamel dermatosis is a pathognomonic sign of kwashiorkor
and diagnosis is not made in its absence.
62.
___Cobalamin’s function has a hemotopoeitic facet only.
63.
___Marasmus may result from taking diet very low in protein but contains
calories from carbohydrates like cassava and sweet potato.
64.
___Ascorbic acid promotes resistance to infection by stimulating the production
of interferons.
Match the vitamins (Column B) with the
manifestation/s of their deficiency (Column A)
65.
___gum bleeding A.
cyanocobalamin
66.
___rachitic chest B.
niacin
67.
___irritability & convulsions
C. pyridoxine
68.
___dermatitis, diarrhea D. thiamine
69.
___acute pernicious beriberi E. folic acid
70.
___megaloblastic anemia with F. ascorbic acid
neurologic symptoms G.
Calcitriol
Choose the best
answer. Place your answers on the space provided for:
71.___30% of
glucose utilized by the cornea is metabolized through:
A. glycolysis C. Embden Meyerhof
Pathway(aerobic)
B. Kreb’s
Cycle D. Pentose
Phosphate Pathway
72.___The
protein that counteracts the insult brought about by increase in the UV
irradiation of the lens cells.
A. glutathione
reductase C. Na+K+ exchanging
ATPase
B. aldehyde dehydrogenase D. lactate dehydrogenase
73.___The
activated rhodopsin:
A.
metarhodopsin I C.
bathorhodopsin
B.
metarhodopsin II D.
lumirhodopsin
74.___The active
cGMP phosphodiesterase of the rods is made up of which subunits?
A. aa
B. ag
C. ab
D. gg
75.___The ion
channel of the rods not affected by light absorbed by rhodopsin:
A. Na+Ca++/K+
exchanger C. Ca++
channel
B. Na+Ca++
channel D. Ca++ATPase
76.___The
molecule that binds to phosphorylated activated rhodopsin:
A.
arrestin B. opsin
C. transducin D. cyanopsin
77.___Chromosome
where the genes for red and green pigments are located:
A. chromosome
10 C. X chromosome
B. chromosome
3 D. chromosome 7
78.___The
chromophore utilized by the cone cells to form iodopsin:
A. 11 cis-retinal C. 11 cis-retinol
B. all
trans-retinal D. all
trans-retinol
79.___With the
action of light, the resting membrane potential of the rod cell membrane is
hyperpolarized to how many mv:
A. -30mv B. -70mv C. -60mv D. -35mv
80. ___The
enzyme that generates NADPH + H needed to reduce GSSG:
A. glutathione
reductase C. aldehyde
dehydrogenase
B. glucose 6 PO4 dehydrogenase D. lactate dehydrogenase
81. ___The
metabolic pathway of the lens that metabolizes 30% of glucose.
A. Pentose Phosphate Pathway C. anaerobic glycolysis
B. Kreb’s
Cycle
D. aerobic glycolysis
82. ___A
reaction that results into the alteration of normal architectural arrangement
of lens proteins found in elderly persons.
A. breakdown of
protein molecules starting at N-terminal end
B. deamination
reaction
C. racemization
of aspartyl residues
D. deamidation
reaction of valine
83. ___A factor
that contribute to the accumulation of sorbitol in the lens cells and fibers.
A. sorbitol not
utilized by any major pathway
B. ability of
sorbitol to diffuse out of the lens cells and fibers
C. the high Km
of aldose reductase
D. the low
affinity of polyol dehydrogenase to sorbitol
84. ___Source
of NADPH + H utilized by aldose reductase of the Polyol Pathway:
A.
glycolysis C. Pentose
Phosphate Pathway
B. Krebs
cycle
D. Uronic acid pathway
85. ___The
immediate metabolite generated before producing active rhodopsin through
the action of light:
A.
bathorhodopsin C.
metarhodopsin I
B.
lumirhodopsin D.
metarhodopsin II
86.____The
inactive transducin:
A. a GTPbg
B. a GTP C. bg
*D. a GDPbg
87. ___Calcium
level that stimulates the guanylyl cyclase activity after the action of
light:
A. 500nM C. 100nM
B. 700nM D. 1000nM
88.___Majority
of the glucose(65%) utilized by the cornea is metabolized through:
A.
glycolysis C. Embden
Meyerhof Pathway(anaerobic)
B. Kreb’s
Cycle D. Pentose Phosphate
Pathway
89.___The
protein that counteracts the insult brought about by increase in the osmolarity
of the lens cells.
A. glutathione
reductase C. Na+K+
exchanging ATPase
B. aldehyde
dehydrogenase D. lactate
dehydrogenase
90.___The
active 3’5’cGMP phosphodiesterase of the cones is made up of which subunits?
A. aa
B. ag
C. ab
D. gg
91.___The ion
channel of the cones that closes when light is absorbed by cyanopsin:
A. Na+Ca++/K+
exchanger C. Ca++
channel
B. Na+Ca++ channel D. Ca++ATPase
92.___The
protein molecule that phosphorylates rhodopsin:
A. rhodopsin
kinase C. cGMP phosphodiesterase
B. gyanylate
kinase D.
glutathione reductase
93.___With the
action of light, the resting membrane potential of the rod cell membrane is
lowered to a value below the resting potential, a phenomenon known as:
A.
repolarization C. depolarization
B.
hyperpolarization D. polarization
94. ___The
enzyme that utilizes NADPH + H to reduce GSSG to 2GSH molecules:
A. glutathione reductase C. aldehyde dehydrogenase
B. glucose 6 PO4 dehydrogenase D. lactate dehydrogenase
95. ___The
harmful metabolite produced by the lipid peroxidation of the lipids molecules
of the membranes of the cones cells is:
A. peroxides C.
aldehydes
B. hydroxyl radicals D. hydrogen
peroxide
96. ___A type
of galectin wherein the CRD is able to bind two different oligosaccharides:
A. chimera C. tandem repeat
B. proto D.
annexin
97. ___A
soluble Ca++ dependent lectin:
A. collectin
L-1 C.
collectin L-2
B. mannan
binding lectin D.
collectin P-1
98. ___A
membrane, Ca++ dependent collectin:
A. surfactant
protein D C.
collectin P-1
B.
conglutinin
D. collectin L-2
99. ___A
selectin expressed on the plasma membrane of white blood cells:
A. L-selectin C. P-selectin
B. E-selectin D.
siglec
100. ___True of
galectins
A. presence of
disulfide bonds
B. amino acid
at the N-terminus has an acetyl moiety
C. with signal
sequence within the molecule
D. acetylated
carboxy terminal end
101. ___The
following are roles mediated by galectins, EXCEPT:
A. for cellular
differentiation
B. play a role
in cancer metastasis
C. play a role
in programmed-cell death
D. play a role
in replication
102. ___Mannose
binding lectin’s indirect role:
A. physical
removal of a virus
B. phagocytosis
of a virus
C. inhibition
of viral growth
D. prevention
of viral attachment
103. ___A
feature of type II receptor lectin, asialoglycoprotein:
A. with a
common motif associated with a clathrin-coated vesicle
B. carbohydrate
recognition domain found at the amino end
C. two or more
transmembrane domains
D. do not form
oligomers
104. ___A
feature of type I transmembrane receptors:
A. have a
tandem of fibronectin domains
B. extracellular
carboxyl end rich in cysteine residues
C. contains a
cysteine-rich amino terminus
D. have several
transmembrane domains
105. ___The
active C3 convertase is composed of:
A. C2aC4a C.
C2bC4a
B. C2aC4b D. C2aC2b
106. ___Expression
of P-selectins occurs at what stage of leukocyte homing process:
A.
extravasation
C. signaling
B. firm
adhesion D.
tethering
107. ___An amino
acid conserved in the immunoglobulin-like domain of siglecs:
A.
asparagine
C. cysteine
B.
phenylalanine
D. aspartate
108. ___A
phospholipids binding group of lectins:
A.
collectins C. annexins
B.
selectins
D. siglecs
109. ___The
specific activity of the lectin molecule depends on:
A. carbohydrate
recognition domain
B. epidermal
growth factor-like domain
C. complement
regulatory domain
D.
fibronectin-like domain
110. ___A
characteristic of collectins:
A. involved in
host defense utilizing an antibody
B.
collagen-like lectin domain with no GlyXaaYaa sequence
C. stimulate
the lectin pathway
D. amino
terminal end contains the C-type lectin domain
111. ___Important
characteristic of E-selectins, EXCEPT:
A. expressed on
the endothelial cells of blood vessels
B. contains
only one C-type lectin domain
C. possess
several epidermal growth factor-like domain
D. contains a
tandem sequence of complement regulatory domain
112. ___Presenting
molecule for P-selectins:
A. CD34 C. PSGL-1
B. Sgp 200 D. MAdCAM – 1
113. ___The
siglex gene cluster is found in what chromosome:
A. chromosome
10 C. chromosome 19
B. chromosome
17 D. chromosome 22
114. ___A
molecule bound by annexin II:
A. tenascin C. collagen
type II
B. heparan
sulfate D. collagen
type IV
115. ___A
mannose binding protein direct effect on the process of virus infection, EXCEPT:
A. cell
lysis C.
prevention of viral attachment
B. physical
removal of virus D. prevention of
viral growth
No comments:
Post a Comment